I have a client with perfect credit, plenty of reserves, and a CLTV of 88%, on a SFR, cash-out investment property. Borrowers are looking to payoff an old 2nd and cash out some additional funds. Everything was going fine, but recently I ran into an issue: This is a husband and wife deal and the wife is not on title, but has been on the current mortgages for 6 years. Everyone I have spoken with will not allow her income to be used unless she has been on title for 6 months. I need her income to qualify.
Does anyone have any ideas? I cannot believe I am hitting a wall on this.