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24 Comments on Lying could be a $10,000 mistake!
Liz, no bending on this one from us either!
Jacque & Larry
$10,000 is a lot of moola for something that could be avoided. Good info for anyone who's even tempted.
Jackque & Larry~ Yep, like Sherry (#1) said. It's our livlihood, as well as the right thing to do.
Great post and information Liz! Not surprising, us in the lending arena have heard things from borrowers such as "what if I say I'm going to live there?" (in order to secure Owner Occupied rates, of course)
Don't get me started on that kind of misrepresentation! I actually just wrote a blog post myself on "Did I commit fraud on my mortgage application?"
Great information for agents, loan officers AND consumers!
Best,
Karen
Karen~ Thanks! I'll check out your blog entry! How dangerous that lying can be. If they lie on a mortgage ap, they are probably also lying to the insurer. When they have a loss, they might find themselves not covered!
Anita~ First off, "a little extra time" needs defined. Second, many school districts will allow students who move during the school term to finish up a school year without changing buildings--again, the amount of time makes a difference in such a ruling. Third, you can request an extension from Fannie Mae, if you are a bona fide owner occupant.
When our forefathers insured the pursuit of happiness in the constitution, by happiness they were referring to property.
At exactly what stage did agents lose their minds and license Fannie, Freddie and HUD the right to tell us how we, the licensed real estate professional, should do I job? Why these entities should be given special privilege over any other seller, or more importantly, exemption to laws governing sellers directed by the State Real Commission is beyond any reasoning.
I've sold properties held by all three and never in my real estate career have I witnessed such violations of buyer's legal rights than transaction of properties held by these three sellers.
Furthermore, when Fannie Mae sells their properties in bulk pool sales to private banks and international investor, no such ridiculous restrictions apply, for Fannie considers themselves exempt from their own rules.
Now with the further threat of this ten thousand dollar fine, it's very simple, I direct my buyers away from these properties, for the restrictions, liabilities and dubious trade practices of these sellers, not to mention the abundance of available inventory from other sellers, it's clearly the best interest of my buyers to look elsewhere.
Lastly, a buyer may buy a house for a child and stay within the Owner Occupant guidelines as long as the child’s name is also on the title, the child owns no other property and the parent is not taking back a mortgage or charging rent.
By telling your prospective buyers that they cannot purchase these homes for their children, you are placing your license in far great jeopardy, for the practice could be interpreted as discriminatory which the last heard case resulted in a sixty thousand dollar fine imposed upon the listing agent.
Larry~I'm glad you stopped by my blog, but I have to correct some of your points.
I've sold properties held by all three and never in my real estate career have I witnessed such violations of buyer's legal rights than transaction of properties held by these three sellers.
First, your assumptive statement about buyer's rights over looks a vital concept in contract law. The buyer has NO RIGHTS in a transaction until the seller grants them. In other words, the seller has 100% of the rights in the transaction from the start. The seller has ABSOLUTE control over the disposition of the property, so the seller does have the legal right to establish parameters of the sale IN ALL REGARDS. The only exception to that are anti-discrimination statutes.
At what point do sellers cede some legal rights to their property ownership? When they sign a contract, the sellers grant specific rights to another party. The first contract is the listing contract. That contract, however, does not actually grant rights to potential buyers. It grants specific rights to the real estate agency and/or the cooperative/s in which that company participates (MLS is an example of that). A bidder STILL does not have RIGHTS, via that listing agreement. The seller can set parameters for the sale and can refuse ANY contract for ANY reason, other than discriminatory practices as defined by federal law.
In a traditional sale, for instance, a buyer can legally refuse to sell to specific persons, for any reason (ANY REASON), other than those federal, and sometimes state, laws. Fannie Mae has an extensive Master Listing Agreement with its brokers. The standard state listing contract is one small part of the overall picture. All sellers have the right to exclusions in their listing agreements and throughout the listing period.
For owners of a property to assert their property rights concerning the disposition of that property absolutely does not constitute "dubious trade practices," as you charge. It's contract law, pure and simple. The owner of a property owns that property 100% until they sign a contract. Basic stuff.
In regard to your last point, I made NO MENTION of parental co-purchase. You pulled that out of the blue. Your charge that I am placing my license in jeopardy for a discriminatory practice is entirely unfounded and highly unprofessional. If you are a licensee, which you seem to be, you are on dangerous ethical grounds. Be careful what kind of charges you level against another licensee and study up on what actually constitutes prosecutable discrimination.
You are correct when you say that there are some circumstances in which a parent can co-purchase with a child and fulfill the occupancy status as currently defined. That is current practice, but the determination is not a matter of discrimination against a protected class.
NOTE: I am not an authorized spokesperson for Fannie, Freddie, HUD, or any federal agency; and I am not a lawyer. I am, however, a listing broker for some of them; and it is in THAT context only that I posted the blog and the responses.
For the record, I am reposting the entire contents of the comment that precipitated my response:
When our forefathers insured the pursuit of happiness in the constitution, by happiness they were referring to property.
At exactly what stage did agents lose their minds and license Fannie, Freddie and HUD the right to tell us how we, the licensed real estate professional, should do I job? Why these entities should be given special privilege over any other seller, or more importantly, exemption to laws governing sellers directed by the State Real Commission is beyond any reasoning.
I've sold properties held by all three and never in my real estate career have I witnessed such violations of buyer's legal rights than transaction of properties held by these three sellers.
Furthermore, when Fannie Mae sells their properties in bulk pool sales to private banks and international investor, no such ridiculous restrictions apply, for Fannie considers themselves exempt from their own rules.
Now with the further threat of this ten thousand dollar fine, it's very simple, I direct my buyers away from these properties, for the restrictions, liabilities and dubious trade practices of these sellers, not to mention the abundance of available inventory from other sellers, it's clearly the best interest of my buyers to look elsewhere.
Lastly, a buyer may buy a house for a child and stay within the Owner Occupant guidelines as long as the child’s name is also on the title, the child owns no other property and the parent is not taking back a mortgage or charging rent.
By telling your prospective buyers that they cannot purchase these homes for their children, you are placing your license in far great jeopardy, for the practice could be interpreted as discriminatory which the last heard case resulted in a sixty thousand dollar fine imposed upon the listing agent.
Larry, you make another very good point, even if inadvertently. Selling REO properties can be very challenging for many agents. You certainly have the right to pass on participating. Buyers who are interested in REO listings should probably seek an agent who has a tolerance for, and an understanding of, the process.
Liz,
You are correct in that for me to engage in verbal swordplay on your blog would be the equivalent of being rude to a host in her own home and rudeness is always unprofessional.
I apologize and wish you the absolute best of luck.
Larry Casner
Liz, your response to Larry is condescending, arrogant, a first class example of bullying and (let me put this in caps so you get the point) TOTALLY RUDE.
For example...to quote you, LIZ, you wrote, "In regard to your last point, I made NO MENTION of parental co-purchase."
LIZ, please repeat post #4. Would the phrase "Buying it for my son" suggest a parental co-purchase? MAYBE? JUST A LITTLE? A SMIDGEN? Yeah, I get it...the preposition is "for" and not "with" but maybe, just MAYBE Larry made a good point by exploring that topic to call attention to INADVERTENT discrimination. That would also mean discrimination and steering on YOUR part, LIZ. The last time I read the Fair Housing Amendments Act, it prohibited discrimination on the bases of familial status, which includes a father and son.
Please get OVER yourself and stop bullying people who present a contrarian point of view. And if you're that insecure that you have to threaten action under the veil of ethics violations, maybe you need PROFESSIONAL help.
Larry~Thank you so much for checking back in! You made a good point about the possibility of parental co-purchase, and that added to the discussion. It has to be done in the specific way that the seller will approve (purchasing with not purchasing for), but the co-purchase can qualify as an owner occupant even during the protected period.
Samuel~You referenced my comment #4. "Buying it for my son" is not the same as "Buying it with my son." The first is not a co-purchase and would be classed as an investment purchase under current rules. Of course, I explain the difference to any would-be purchaser. In fact, I have a property under contract at this very minute which is a parental co-purchase, but both names are on the contract and both will be on the deed. As I said, that is permitted under current rules, though that has not always been the case.
Parents who want to purchase in their names and then have children (or some other family member, for that matter) occupy are the ones who do not qualify for owner occupant status. Of course, the parents who add the adult child's name to the documents are not even considering lying about occupancy.
You are way off base when you say that I am steering and that any of this amounts to discrimination under the Fair Housing statutes. More than once in my response to Larry, I mentioned that sellers cannot ignore federal anti-discrimination statutes. Giving owner occupants preferential treatment (and defining owner occupant as someone who is actually going to LIVE in the home) does not violate Fair Housing statutes. Steering has a specific meaning that is nowhere close to anything in this discussion.
As Larry went on to say, it IS my blog. Because my intent is to inform and educate, I choose not to leave misinformation uncorrected. I, therefore, set the record straight when a comment has bad information. If that seems rude, so be it.
To explain the rules as they currently exist is not bullying or being contrarian. Defending myself when wrongly attacked is not, either. It's OK for you to call me contrarian, bully, and even rude, if you want to do so. It is not OK for you to muddy my blog with misinformation. I'll correct that every time.
Thanks for stopping by.
For the record, here is Samuel's comment in full:
Liz, your response to Larry is condescending, arrogant, a first class example of bullying and (let me put this in caps so you get the point) TOTALLY RUDE.
For example...to quote you, LIZ, you wrote, "In regard to your last point, I made NO MENTION of parental co-purchase."
LIZ, please repeat post #4.Would the phrase "Buying it for my son" suggest a parental co-purchase?MAYBE?JUST A LITTLE?A SMIDGEN? Yeah, I get it...the preposition is "for" and not "with" but maybe, just MAYBE Larry made a good point by exploring that topic to call attention to INADVERTENT discrimination.That would also mean discrimination and steering on YOUR part, LIZ.The last time I read the Fair Housing Amendments Act, it prohibited discrimination on the bases of familial status, which includes a father and son.
Please get OVER yourself and stop bullying people who present a contrarian point of view.And if you're that insecure that you have to threaten action under the veil of ethics violations, maybe you need PROFESSIONAL help.
Nice Post!! helps alot for understanding this policy.
However, I was wondering if it's ok in my case.
Since I bought the foreclosured property with that 90 days restrictions, but my current rent has not finished yet. I will ocuppy it for sure later and won't sell it, but I have considered several options before I go there to live in the property myself. however I don't know if 't illegle.
1. can I leave the property there without using it. But I wont sell it. only occationally go there to live for a night or two till my current rent contract finished.
2. Rent it out to my friend as guests without charging money. and may start charging them after 91 days of the closing date and sign the contract then?
Or if you have any good suggestions for me please.
Thank you very much for your help
I had a similar experience: parents want to buy HUD property for a child. They will be all on the title, but the loan is only on parent(s).
I don't believe that it is a good idea to lie about owner occupancy buying any property. It is better wait 15/30 days and submit a proper bid with all proper disclosures.
Josh~Sorry, I just saw your questions. If you purchased a Fannie Mae property, the Owner Occupancy form states the rules (and they are also in my blog entry above). You agreed to MOVE IN within 60 days of closing, making it your PRIMARY RESIDENCE, and you said that you intend to live there for a year. That does not mean staying there occasionally or renting it to a friend.
You would be best protected by moving in even though your rental agreement is not up. Perhaps you can allow your friend to stay in the rented property.
The 90 day rule refers to selling and/or mortgaging the property. The 90 day limitation applies to investors, not to owner occupants. If you purchased as an owner occupant, that section of the addendum should not have been checked (and, thus, does not apply).
The fact of the matter is this. There is NOT one instance EVER where an investor has been fined $10,000 for the violation. Investors buy within the 15 days all the time!!! Its just a form!!! Do you really think FM is over staffed and has time to investigate this???? If anything, homepath brokers sit or work slow on owner occupant offers for the 15 day period so investors can get in on it, pay more $$ cash for the house, and more $$ for the agents, 14 day close. Everyone knows this!! Google the boards..... Certain realtors like to "scare" you, but in reality they need to just accept the form.
As I said, I would love to hear of the tens, or hudreds of thousands of homepath first looks deals, where someone has been fined. PROVE IT!!