My question is if you get a pre-approval, how can you come up with the reason that there is not enough income to qualify for a loan after 60 days. Now, couldn't they have figured this out 20 or 30 or 40 days ago? Their income didn't change, their credit didn't change.
They actually didn't send a denial of mortgage until 63 days after acceptance of the contract by both parties. REALLY? Never use them again. After much cajoling the seller is finally going to return their earnest money deposit but not without a fight.
I know as well as anyone else that a pre-approval is NOT an approval and I have seen some really valid reasons that they denied mortgages, even after a pre-approval but sometimes it just doesn't make any sense and makes me wonder.
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