There is much discussion pertaining to the impending demise (or not) of seller funded down payment assistance (SFDPA) plans like Nehemiah and Ameridream. For those of you who agree the buyer should be required to have some down payment, your arguments are more than valid. As a RESPONSIBLE lender I have wrestled much with the idea of seller funded down payment assistance. I support the new bill and support SFDPA's because:
-100% has existed and still does. VA and Rural Development still allow 100% financing and seller contributions towards costs. These loans are performing well, without excessive defaults, for a number of reasons. They do prove that within certain guidelines 100% can work.
-Any seller concession, from closing costs to appliances, skews the purchase price. If a seller is willing to accept a certain amount and faces the prospect of paying anything from those proceeds, he adjusts his price accordingly. Why should a gift of down payment be any different? Stated differently if a seller is contributing 6% to make the deal more attractive to potential buyers, what difference does it make if part of that 6% is SFDPA or not? Conversely does this mean when a seller agrees to pay a higher real estate commission rate that he/she is just inflating the price of the home? We have appraisers who are responsible for determining if a home is being sold at market value. As long as they do their jobs (and most by far do) then we will know if these sales prices are supported.
-I firmly believe the high default rates on these SFDPA loans were attributable to "risk layering". These deals were promoted to borrowers with low credit scores and other negative factors. I saw reported that over half of the defaults were to borrowers with less than 620 credit scores. How many more defaults could have been avoided by just making the qualifying criteria tougher?
-FHA does allow for up to 6% interested party contributions. As mentioned earlier, why should we differentiate what the 6% can be applied to? A good response is "because the FHA required 3/3.5% is all the buyer will have into the deal, and they should have skin in the deal. That is a very valid point until you recognize that VA and RD are working well without it. Also remember FHA allows for family members and employers to gift the funds and neither of those options represent much "skin".
-The only reason we have these SFDPA's is because FHA won't come out with a 100% program themselves. All of this could be properly fixed if HUD recognized that certain borrowers are still a good credit risk, even when they have no down payment. Unfortunately the current political climate is not conducive to this happening- much as we may need it. I do feel it's inappropriate to pay an administrative fee to a third party just to comply with HUD's convoluted policy.
-The bill in question does create minimum credit score standards, allows for higher PMI rates and addresses the inclusion of homebuyer's education, all good changes that needed to be made.
Although it's easy to say any buyer should have money saved for a downpayment I have worked with hundreds who simply cannot. Down payment is the greatest hurdle to first time homeownership. Existing alternatives such as public sector programs (SHIP in Florida) are limited and many times fraught with conditions.
And most importantly, at a time when the market needs its first time buyers most, do we want to further restrict good credit risks from purchasing a home? Does this mean by supporting SFDPA's we are artificially supporting higher real estate values? If we do away with the funding mechanism for thousands of good buyers to buy are we not artificially deflating prices? In the end the deciding factor will always be, are the loans paid on time? If they are, then they are good loans. The majority of loans done with SFDPA's are good loans. Why are we willing to hurt so many for the actions of a minority?
All points of view are encouraged.
Gerry Suarez, Jr.
Your HUD Loan Pro!
There is a new bill in Congress trying to bring back DPA as we know it
Dave