I just don't get it! Someone please tell me what the rationale is behind what appears to be standard fare in the lending industry. What I am talking about is the reluctance of Lender's to approve mortgages for Investors of Flip Properties especially over the last couple of years. I have been confronted with this reoccurring problem of financing Flip's in the Portland Market over and over again and it just does not make sense to me.
Is this my fault. Maybe I have just not reached out to other Lenders enough to insure this will not be a problem in the future. So what is the Problem you ask?
Well here is the scenario.
- ( A ) buys a property from ( B ) a cash sale that closes in 10 days
- ( A ) then sells to ( C ) for an escalated price.
- ( C ) purchases using a conventional loan due to close in 30 days
Now I know many of you are wondering if this is some sort of scam or something by the Buyer's. Perhaps they are in collusion trying to defraud the Lender. Or perhaps this some sort of elaborate money laundering scheme. Or worse yet someone has taken advantage of an Old Lady who does not know any better.
NO NO NO! It is none of that. It is strictly on the up and up.
Here are the facts. (A) is an all cash Investor who is constantly on the lookout for flip properties where he can make a profit.
Similar to Investors who buy and sell ( flip ) foreclosures. This Investor is not interested in Foreclosures as they tend to be more paperwork and often a lot slower due to the way most lenders handle REO's and Foreclosures. He would prefer just to keep his eyes on the market and look for opportunities.
Investor ( C ) also a client of mine is a Fixer Buyer who rehabs homes for resale. He tends to finance them and is also looking for deals that will make him money.
Enter property ( X ). This property came on the market about a month ago. The Listing agent had it mis-described in the listing calling it a 3 bedroom home. In Reality it was a Duplex with 8 Bedrooms on an over-sized lot in Irvington a very desirable neighborhood in Downtown Portland. The Price was about $350,000.
Buyer ( A ) received the new listing information from My_Investor's_Web_Site at about 7:00pm that evening and called me. By 8:30pm we had previewed the property together and written a more than full price offer. By the following morning we had acceptance by the Seller.
The terms was an all cash sale to be concluded within 10 business days and a 3 day inspection period. It was during the inspection that Buyer ( A ) mentioned he might possibly flip this property rather than keeping it. He asked me to shop it around.
By the end of business on the final day for inspection Buyer ( A ) had made his final decision to flip the property. Before the end of business that evening I presented him with Buyer ( C )'s offer. The deal was accepted. By the end of the following week Buyer ( A ) closed on the house and Buyer ( C ) submitted his paperwork to his lender for a loan.
The appraisal on the property for Buyer ( C ) went off with out a hitch. In fact the appraiser said that he had a hard time finding comps in that low of a price range. This was no surprise to any of us. We had all felt that the property had been grossly under sold.
All was smooth sailing until the Underwriter starts squawking a bit about this flip and why was Buyer ( A ) making money in such a short period of time.
I ask you, what the **** is it of their business. Certainly I completely understand that they should be cautious and ask questions to make sure there are no cases of fraud or dirty dealings. But when the credentials of all parties are above reproach with a 15 + year history of these type of transactions with zero complaints. And further more the appraisal and verified Comps all indicate a vastly under marketed property in the first sale, then I just don't get it.
Is this some sort of envy or plot to keep legitimate Investor's from making a living? Are you a Loan officer or Mortgage Banker? Have you run on to this as well? Perhaps you can give me an explanation that makes sense.
************** UPDATE***********
Finally after writing this post and invoking as much emotion as I could without become vulgar " I ask you, what the **** is it of their business". Full well knowing that it is of course the Lender's money. I just did not have the full explanation of what the problem was.
Thanks to Mark_Pandzich_of_Wells_Fargo and his in depth explanation below. There is no more ambiguity.
Your 1st buyer buys house with cash under market value. Cash Buyer contracts new sale at higher amount to your 2nd buyer, a fix and flipper. Mortgage Broker originates and packages deal to wholesaler, makes 101.00 to 102.00 on deal. Wholesaler repackages loan, sells it to investor for another 101.00 on the deal themselves. Investor sells it to a servicer for another bit of profit. At this point, your 2nd buyer has "fixed" the property and is now flipping it for sale and pays off the loan. Most likely he's sold it in less than a year, which is not enough time for the cost of the loan to pay for itself (the cost being the income made by the broker, the wholesaler and the investor). The servicer gets caught holding the bag with nothing to show for it. Banks are in the business to make money, not give it away.
Thanks Mark!
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