Signing Contract = Transferring Title?

By
Mortgage and Lending with Right Trac Financial Group, Inc., NMLS# 2709 NMLS #1012303

It may come as news to some, but when a seller executes a contract of sale, the seller is transferring equitable title to seller's property to the buyer.  The Supreme Court of the State of Connecticut decided the case of Salce v. Wolczek (SC 19144) in an opinion just released, and indicated that under the Doctrine of Equitable Conversion, equitable title to the property passes to the buyer upon the execution of a contract of sale.

Under the Doctrine of Equitable conversion (the "Doctrine"), the seller acquires a lien against the property for the payment of the balance of the purchase price and holds the legal title in trust for the benefit of the buyer.  The buyer is not entitled to possession of the property, but could legally mortgage the property the Court indicated.

The Court further stated that the seller's interest in the property is transferred to the balance of the purchase price due and becomes a personal property interest. The buyer on the other hand does acquire an interest in realty.  Upon the death of the buyer before the formal transfer of the legal title to the property, the buyer's interest in the property becomes part of the buyer's estate.  That fact alone might have tax and other unintended consequences.

In addition, the buyer acquires the right to enforce the contract of sale by a suit for specific performance.  In other words, the buyer has the right to force the seller to convey the legal title to the buyer provided that the buyer pays the balance of the purchase price due.

The Doctrine arises out of the English common law and has been recognized to some extent or another for hundreds of years.  It is still recognized and enforced in some states and has been altered or eliminated by statute in other states. 

The Court did recognize that the Doctrine is a legal fiction, and acknowledged that it is "rooted in the principle that equity views a transaction as being completed at the time the parties enter into the transaction, irrespective of whether a formal exchange of legal title has taken place".

If you have any questions as to whether the Doctrine applies in your state, seek the advice of a local, competent real estate attorney.  You may want to consider the consequences of the application of the Doctrine if it does exist in your state.

 

deed and keys

Posted by

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Randy Kirsch, NMLS #1012303

Right Trac Financial Group, Inc. NMLS #2709

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The blogs written and published by Randy Kirsch are not in any manner whatsoever to be considered as legal advice or as a legal opinions.  If you have legal questions or concerns regarding any area of real estate law or mortgage law you are advised to consult a licensed, competent real estate attorney in your local area to address your concerns and questions.

 

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Comments (10)

George Souto
George Souto NMLS #65149 FHA, CHFA, VA Mortgages - Middletown, CT
Your Connecticut Mortgage Expert

Randy so if I am understanding this correctly, if the buyer pays the seller the agreed upon purchase price in full, the buyer owns the property at the time the full purchase price is paid to the seller, and does not have to wait until the Deed and they are placed on title.  Am I understanding that correctly?

Dec 03, 2014 07:36 AM
Randy Kirsch
Right Trac Financial Group, Inc., NMLS# 2709 - Manchester, CT
(NMLS# 1012303) Your Dedicated Mortgage Consultant

George Souto - as a purely legal matter you are correct.  However, from a practical standpoint it would not be acceptable in the market place.  I am sure that you would not make a mortgage loan to someone who has not gotten a deed to property and recorded it.  People are just not going to rely on a legal theory that is against everything that they have ever learned, and people learn that you need a deed before you have actual title to the property.

Thanks for sharing George.  Make it a great evening.

Dec 03, 2014 08:15 AM
George Souto
George Souto NMLS #65149 FHA, CHFA, VA Mortgages - Middletown, CT
Your Connecticut Mortgage Expert

Randy I agree we would not do a mortgage without a recorded deed .  I was just trying to understand what this Doctrine was trying to say.

Dec 03, 2014 09:20 AM
Joe Petrowsky
Mortgage Consultant, Right Trac Financial Group, Inc. NMLS # 2709 - Manchester, CT
Your Mortgage Consultant for Life

Good morning Randy. I have heard the term , "Specific performance" many times, but have never actually seen some sue to get a property because a seller refused to sell, even though there is a signed purchase agreement. I have seen these contracts being recorded on the land records that creates another set of problems for a seller.

Dec 03, 2014 05:51 PM
Maria Gilda Racelis
Home Buyers Realty, LLC-Manchester, Bolton. Vernon,Ellington - Manchester, CT
Home Ownership is w/in Reach. We Make it Happen!

Hi Randy,

The contract of sale "GHAR" form, the agreement between the buyer and the seller is binding upon and inure to the benefit of the respective personal representative, heirs and successors and assigns of buyers and sellers.

Thus, if one party to the contract dies before the transfer of title, it can be imposed on either of the parties' survivor. 

But I have yet to see that. I am not sure if it becomes part of the estate as stated though. "Upon the death of the buyer before the formal transfer of the legal title to the property, the buyer's interest in the property becomes part of the buyer's estate."

Dec 03, 2014 08:12 PM
Randy Kirsch
Right Trac Financial Group, Inc., NMLS# 2709 - Manchester, CT
(NMLS# 1012303) Your Dedicated Mortgage Consultant

George Souto - there is no question it is a nebulous doctrine and not the easiest to really understand and apply as it goes back a long way to feudal times in England when true landlords and overlords ruled the realm of real property.

Dec 03, 2014 08:43 PM
Randy Kirsch
Right Trac Financial Group, Inc., NMLS# 2709 - Manchester, CT
(NMLS# 1012303) Your Dedicated Mortgage Consultant

Joe Petrowsky - yes recording a contract is an old buyer's trick to protect himself and to make life difficult for the seller by creating an encumberance on the title.  A lot of contract forms in fact prohibit the recording of the contract. 

Thanks for sharing.  Make it a great day.

Dec 03, 2014 08:45 PM
Randy Kirsch
Right Trac Financial Group, Inc., NMLS# 2709 - Manchester, CT
(NMLS# 1012303) Your Dedicated Mortgage Consultant

Maria Gilda Racelis - Good morning.  Yes, in CT the equitable interest in the property that the buyer acquires by the signing of a contract of sale does pass to the buyer's heirs and is part of his estate. The language in the board form does confirm what the law actually would impose.  A deceased buyer's heirs could in fact enforce the contract and complete the transaction notwithstanding the death of the named buyer, although I too have never seem that situation develop.

Thanks for sharing.  Make it a great day.

Dec 03, 2014 08:50 PM
Anna Hatridge
R Gilliam Real Estate LLC - Farmington, MO
Missouri Realtor with R Gilliam Real Estate LLC

INTERESTING!   I have had a buyer force the seller even though the home burnt to the ground, but never after a death.  In Missouri executed contracts are not recorded.  This is thought provoking and encourages each of us to check our own state laws regarding contracts or ask our legal council.  Thanks for the information. 

Dec 04, 2014 09:04 PM
Randy Kirsch
Right Trac Financial Group, Inc., NMLS# 2709 - Manchester, CT
(NMLS# 1012303) Your Dedicated Mortgage Consultant

Anna Hatridge - you are absolutely correct that you need to check with an attorney in your area.  Most contract forms that I have seen over the year prohibit recording the contract, but that doesn't mean that some buyers won't record anyway. As long as a buyer who records close on the purchase there is no problem, but if they don't close that contract becomes a cloud on the seller's title and may delay a subsequent buyer in closing on the property.

Thanks for sharing.  Make it a great day.

Dec 05, 2014 12:01 AM

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