Ok you tax experts out there. I have this simple question that might not be so simple. I am representing the buyer on a foreclosure condo. The taxes are delinquent from the previous owner. Is my buyer now responsible for those taxes or is it the responsibility of the foreclosing bank?
I was under the impression that as soon as the lender foreclosed, they assumed all tax liabililties for that property. I asked my broker but his answer was "Its in the contract". Does anyone have a simple explanation for this?
Thanks in advance for your time.
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