Disclaimer, I only work with sellers so you are free to file what I say in the appropriate receptacle (aka. the bit bucket) if you disagree. Still, I am interested in your comments because my wife is the one who works only with buyers.
I just did a Active Rain search for "buyer ethics" and got a bunch of posts by agents asking this-and-that about the ethics of soliciting a client if the client was "working with another agent". Generally there seems to be a lot of confusion by agents because buyers are generally not educated about the benefits to both the client and the agent of working with one buyer's agent. Also "working with" seems to be pretty loosely defined. One client looking at homes in one city was "working" with an agent who turned out to be the agent who was listing their current home in a city over 75 miles away. By "working" did the client mean they had an exclusive agreement to have the listing agent show and sell them a home in the city they were being relocated to? What would the listing agent think?
Some buyers seem to be on a mission to get lots of agents to do lots of work without any regard to if any of the agents get compensated. That to me is also an ethical issue but buyers are under no obligation to be ethical I suppose. (but see http://activerain.com/blogsview/88251/Real-Estate-Code-of for an interesting post about that)
Not on Active Rain but in person I have heard a fair number of agents gripe about the disloyalty of buyers. The comments I have seen on Active Rain indicate a good deal of confusion by agents wanting to do the right thing but not knowing who is and who is not being represented by another agent.
Standard of Practice 16-9 states
REALTORS®, prior to entering into a representation agreement, have an affirmative obligation to make reasonable efforts to determine whether the prospect is subject to a current, valid exclusive agreement to provide the same type of real estate service. (Amended 1/04)
Does a buyer asking an agent to show them a house or two, or asking them to send a hot-sheet to them constitute an exclusive agreement? So far as a disciplinary action is concerned, I would be surprised if an agent could prosecute a successful complaint against another agent unless they first had a WRITTEN exclusive agreement to represent that buyer. Would such buyer behavior create problems determining procuring cause, I should think. Asking a potential client to sign a buyer's agency agreement is a perfect opportunity to educate them about their responsibilities and how agents working for buyers get compensated.
My question is why isn't everyone asking buyers to sign an agency agreement before showing them a property not listed by one of their clients? Seems like having buyers sign an agreement, even if it were only for two weeks at a time, would be a win-win for everyone.
I get the feeling that if most people looking for a house were asked if they were under a buyer's agency agreement (rather than "are you working with an agent") that they would reply "a what?" If so, this is a sad indication that REALTORS (ie. us) are not doing a very good job of educating buyers.
I cannot imagine even starting to market a house that was for sale without having a listing agreement. Why would a buyer agent settle for less. In addition, just as I would expect a listing client to break ties with a former agent before asking me to provide services I would think a buyer's agent would want a new client to unsubscribe to any hot-sheets and property alerts other agents are sending them to avoid a potential confusion about procuring cause in the event the former agent sent information about a property to one of my clients which they ultimately bought.
Maybe this is a problem which is local to my area?
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